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From this answer:

The Fourier series:

\$ V_t = \dfrac{a_0}{2} + \displaystyle \sum_{i=1}^{\infty}[a_i sin(i \omega_0 t) + b_i cos(i \omega_0 t) ] \$

Why is the DC level written as \$\dfrac{a_0}{2}\$, and not \$a_0\$? stevenvh says it's convention, but there has to be an explanation. Where does it come from?

Federico Russo
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3 Answers3

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This stumped me for a while as well but it is actually quite simple.

The general Fourier series:

\$ g(x) = a_0 + \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}[a_n sin(n x) + b_n cos(n x) ] \$

I am not going to do all the math but if you use the orthogonal signal space \$ \left\{{1, cos(nx),sin(nx)}\right\} n\in N \$ you can derive the fourier series terms as:

\$ a_n = \dfrac{1}{\pi} \displaystyle \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} g(x)cos(n x)\,\mathrm{d}x\$

\$ b_n = \dfrac{1}{\pi} \displaystyle \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} g(x)sin(n x)\,\mathrm{d}x\$

And:

\$ a_0 = \dfrac{1}{2\pi} \displaystyle \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} g(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\$

The "regular" Fourier series

\$ g(x) = \dfrac{a_0}{2} + \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}[a_n sin(n x) + b_n cos(n x)]\$

For the sake of symmetry the \$a_0\$ term was redefined as:

\$ a_0 = \dfrac{1}{\pi} \displaystyle \int_{-\pi}^{\pi} g(x)\,\mathrm{d}x\$

to be similar to \$a_n\$ and \$b_n\$. Therefore the \$\dfrac{1}{2}\$ term was added to the expression of the Fourier series.

Reference:

Generalized Fourier Series
Fourier Series

Federico Russo
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Konsalik
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    Yes. Just restating your answer: by making the constant term a0/2, the formula for an works for all n, including 0. – Art Brown May 29 '12 at 06:47
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That is one form the fourier series can be written. Another one is $$V_t = \sum\limits_{i=-\infty}^\infty c_ie^{ji\omega t}$$ with the imaginary unit j.

When you apply Euler's formula \$e^{j\phi}=\cos\phi+j \sin\phi\$ you get the form you already know. The coefficients are \$a_i = c_i + c_{-i}\$, \$b_i = j(c_i + c_{-i})\$.

For the special case \$i = 0\$ you have now two options that looks feasible

  1. Apply the formula \$a_i = c_i + c_{-i}\$ to be consistent with the cases \$i\neq0\$ and you get \$a_0 = 2 c_0\$
  2. Define the coefficient \$a_0\$ so it doesn't relate to the other coefficents \$a_i\$.

What you choose seems to be a matter of taste.

PetPaulsen
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  • No, I don't get the idea :(. I can imagine that you add \$c_{-1}\$ and \$c_{1}\$, but why would you add \$c_0\$ to itself? – Federico Russo May 27 '12 at 08:54
  • @Federico Russo - I tried to clarify my answer. – PetPaulsen May 27 '12 at 09:22
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    That can't be right. It's not "\$\sum\limits_{i=-\infty}^\infty\$, *count zero twice*". (I don't know the right answer either.) – stevenvh May 27 '12 at 09:35
  • @stevenvh - Like you said in your the answer the op linked to it is a convention. IMO, \$a_0\$ could be anything e.g. \$a_0 = 11c_0\$. The case I listed at 1. follows the pattern given by the other coefficients. But isn't more wrong or right then the 2. case. – PetPaulsen May 27 '12 at 09:42
  • @stevenvh - Or the other way around: take the formula given by the op and the formula I have given. Now solve the relationship between the coefficients a and c. When you do the same with the formula given by the op but with \$a_0\$ instead of \$\frac{a_0}{2}\$ and the formula I have given, you get another relationship. But both are still right! – PetPaulsen May 27 '12 at 09:45
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Try another perspective to Pet's one.
This is not formal and may be just wrong but it seems to work and make sense:

Deal with ai and sine terms. Same argument applies to bi and cos terms.

For any ith term with i > 0 if ai = 1 you get a sinusoid that extends from -1 to +1. ie
Peak to peak magnitude of any sine term = 2ai.
RMS magnitude of any single sine term is sqrt(2).ai
Similarly for bi and cos terms.

If we apply the same convention for DC, for DC to have Vdc = a0 implies a DC peak to peak value of 2a0 (as is the case with ai sine terms).
To maintain a consistent convention we set
Vdc = 1/2.a0

The above arguably arises because an AC value is measured about its mean value = about 0 and so implies that an equal and opposite peak value exists.
For a sine wave it does.
For DC it doesn't.
We are trying to fit a single side signal in one case only into an otherwise bipolar system.


In this useful 28 page PDF Introduction to the Fourier series ewuation (3) on page 4 uses a0 and not a0/2, thus differing from your example, and violating the consistent convention as mentioned above.

This wikipedia page follows your convention without comment.

See 2nd kjsingh123 post on this page for a0 derivation

Russell McMahon
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  • Sorry, Russell, but I'm not convinced by this one. A DC voltage of +2V doesn't have a peak-to-peak value of 4V. That's 2V, just like the peak value. CMIIW. – stevenvh May 27 '12 at 09:07
  • @Stevenh - read my lips :-) - or words. It's easy in things like this to hear things that are not intended. Your 2V/4V comparison is my point. A DCV value which is p-p 2V is +/- 1V around it's mean. BUT unlike ALL other terms the mean is not midway between Vmax and Vmin but AT Vmin. The 0.5 factor allows us to treat a signal that is offset by +half its magnitude with the same convention as all the other terms. In fourier analysis 4Vp-p square wave IS a +/- 2V AC signal - ie it matches the non-rule that you quote. Only DC doesn't and it differs by the factor of 2 which is being discussed. – Russell McMahon May 27 '12 at 09:19
  • OK, I follow that, but your starting point is wrong IMO. The mean of a 2V DC signal is 2V DC, not 1V. – stevenvh May 27 '12 at 09:23